WCF. VII. Of God's Covenant with Man - 2-3. Q & A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

Prior posts for WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - Sections 1-8.

Prior posts for WCF. IV. Of Creation - Sections 1-2.

Prior posts for WCF. V. Of Providence - Sections 1-7.

Prior posts for WCF. VI. Of the Fall of Man, of Sin, and of the Punishment Thereof - Sections 1-6.

Prior post for WCF. VII. of God's Covenant with Man - Section 1.

WCF. VII. Of God's Covenant with Man.

Sections 2-3.

1. Why is it proper to speak of the "covenant of works" as a biblical teaching though it is not technically designated as such in Scripture?

It is proper because it is clearly implied in Genesis 2:17, as well as the hypothetical situation raised by Paul in Galatians 3:12, that man in Eden had "the alternative of obedience and life, or disobedience and death" (84).

2. What reasons are given by those who object to speaking of a covenant of works?

It is generally objected for two reasons: first, that it is not formally stated in Scripture (in a syntactical sense), and, second, that this erroneously suggest that the work's of a man would merit (read: necessitate) the blessings of God.

3. What answers may be given to these arguments?

The first argument is not convincing because a great deal of orthodox Christian belief is not "formally stated in Scripture", e.g., the doctrine of the Trinity. The second argument is not convincing because the "Confession carefully guards against the very danger that is being warned about" (84); the terminology of the former covenant (covenant of works) is used to distinguish it from the latter covenant (covenant of grace). Both covenants were sovereignly imposed by God, but the conditions in the former were the obedient works of man, but the latter is not a covenant between God and man, it is a covenant between the persons of the Godhead (a covenant between mutual parties, oftentimes called a parity covenant).

4. What merit has this designation (covenant of works)?

As stated above, the obedient works of man were the conditions (means for) the gracious provisions (covenantal promises).

5. What is meant by saying that the covenant was sovereignly imposed?

God consults Himself and nothing else.

6. State the Arminian conception of the condition of the covenant of grace.

The Arminian conception of the condition of the covenant of grace teaches that Jesus died for all men, i.e., "procured their removal from the covenant of works and introduced them into the provisions of the covenant of grace." In this new arena, salvation is made possible... man can attain eternal life on a "new and easier basis than that of the covenant of works." Why put it that way? Because, according to the former covenant, God required absolute, perfect obedience, but now God requires an abridged version of obedience--faith, repentance, and evangelical obedience. Like the former covenant, rewards and provisions are conferred upon the basis of man's works, but only because Jesus has made this a possibility. Note: salvation according to the Arminian conception is not really a gift of a parity covenant of grace between the persons of the Godhead.

7. State the Reformed conception of the condition of the covenant of grace.

The Reformed conception is that all of the conditions of the parity covenant of grace between the persons of the Godhead are fulfilled explicitly and solely by God! Thus, "the life and salvation offered sinners in the Reformed version of the gospel is actual, because it depends upon God alone not only for the end to be attained, but also for the creation of those attitudes and actions in us that are necessary for receiving of that end" (85). The conditions of the covenant of grace are "conditional only in the sense that it depends upon certain effects of the work of the holy Spirit in the hearts of God's elect," i.e., regeneration, sanctification, etc.

Note the key difference between the two: the Arminian conception of God's plan of salvation for man is merely a possibility, while the Reformed conception of God's plan of salvation for man is an actuality.

WCF. VII. Of God's Covenant with Man - 1. Q & A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

Prior posts for WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - Sections 1-8.

Prior posts for WCF. IV. Of Creation - Sections 1-2.

Prior posts for WCF. V. Of Providence - Sections 1-7.

Prior posts for WCF. VI. Of the Fall of Man, of Sin, and of the Punishment Thereof - Sections 1-6. 

WCF. VII. Of God's Covenant with Man.

Section 1.

1. What does the depraved sinner deny besides the fact that he is depraved?

In addition to deny his depravity, the depraved sinner denies his creaturehood. Depraved man is bewitched by self-delusions of autonomy and independence from God (the Creator).

2. Have Reformed Christians failed to consistently acknowledge "the distance between God and the creature?"

 Yes, some Reformed Christians have failed to consistently acknowledge the basic distinction between the Creator and the creation.

3. How have they done so?

They have done so by when by describing a covenant as "an agreement between two or more persons." Williamson says, "There is, in such language, at least the danger of suggesting that God and man are equal parties in the disposition of the covenants--as if each agreed to terms sovereignly imposed by the other!" (82)

4. What would God have owed a sinlessly perfect, or perfectly obedient, man?

 God would have owed (God owes) only the gracious promises he has self-imposed by way of covenant.

5. By what is God "bound" in his covenant(s)?

Because "God's covenant dealings with men are both sovereign and gracious" . . . "He is bound by nothing but his own holy Word" (82).

6. By whom is a covenant instituted?

A covenant is sovereignly and graciously instituted by God; a covenant is instituted by the will of God alone.

WCF. VI. Of the Fall of Man, of Sin, and of the Punishment Thereof - Q&A - Sections 1-6.

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

Prior posts for WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - Sections 1-8.

Prior posts for WCF. IV. Of Creation - Sections 1-2.

Prior posts for WCF. V. Of Providence - Sections 1-7.

WCF. VI. Of the Fall of Man, of Sin, and of the Punishment Thereof.

Sections 1-2.

Sections 3-4.

Sections 5-6.

Conviction of Sin

"In all genuine conviction of sin, the great burden of pollution and guilt is felt to consist not in what we have done, but in what we are--our permanent moral condition rather than our actual transgressions [i.e. our estate of sin and misery]. The great cry is to be forgiven and delivered from "the wicked heart of unbelief," "deadness to divine things, alienated from God as a permanent habit of soul." "O wretched man that I am! who shall deliver me from the body of this death?" Rom. vii. 24; Ps. li. 5, 6. It hence necessarily follows that original sin, as well as actual transgressions, deserves the curse of the law. Everything condemned by the law is under its curse" (A.A. Hodge, The Confession of Faith, 116-117).

Also see Question XXVIII from The Shorter Catechism:

Question: Wherein consists the sinfulness of the estate whereinto man fell? 

Answer: The sinfulness of that estate whereinto man fell, consists in the guilt of Adam's first sin, the want of original righteousness, and the corruption of his whole nature, which is commonly called original sin, together with all actual transgressions which proceed from it.

WCF. VI. Of the Fall of Man, of Sin, and of the Punishment Thereof - 5-6. Q&A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

Prior posts for WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - Sections 1-8.

Prior posts for WCF. IV. Of Creation - Sections 1-2.

Prior posts for WCF. V. Of Providence - Sections 1-7.

WCF. VI. Of the Fall of Man, of Sin, and of the Punishment Thereof.

Sections 1-2.

Sections 3-4.

Sections 5-6.

1. Is the believer both "the old man" and "the new man"?

No. A believer is not two persons. A believer is only "the new man."

2. Prove this to be correct from Scripture.

Colossians 3:9-10, Lie not one to another, seeing that ye have put off the old man with his deeds; And have put on the new man, which is renewed in knowledge after the image of him that created him. Also, see 2 Corinthians 5:17.

3. What does "perfectionism" teach?

"Perfectionism" teaches on the absence of all sin when a believer becomes a new creation in Christ (or at the least they teach on the absence of all known and/or conscious sin).

4. What does "antinomianism" teach?

"Antinomianism" teaches that a believer may indeed sin, but he will blame-shift and deny responsibility for sinning, claiming it is the influence of the "old man or nature within me," thus denying that Christians ought to stive to be perfect. "Antinomian" literally means anti-law; "antinomianism" demonstrates it is anti-law because it shirks personal responsibility before the Law of God, e.g. The antinomian thinks: It isn't my fault that I just committed this sin! That sin flowed from the old man or nature within me.

5. Give a Scripture reference to refute "perfectionism."

1 John 1:8, If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. Also, see 1 John 1:10, James 3:2, Ecclesiastes 7:20, Romans 7:14-25, and Psalm 51.

6. Give a Scripture reference to refute "antinomianism."

"Certain expressions of the apostle Paul may be quoted in what can be made to seem to support this view. He says, for example, "it is no longer I who do it, but sin that dwells in me" (Rom. 7:17). . . . But putting this construction on these statements of Paul is false because it overlooks completely the ways in which Paul "takes the blame" for this situation. "I am carnal," he says (7:14). "For I know that in me (that is, in my flesh) nothing good dwells" (7:18). Paul does not pretend that he can blame his sins on "the old man" a though they were not his. He does indeed inform us that his sins arise from the motions of his old nature as they survive in him. Yet he clearly indicates that he must fight against them and continue doing so until they are wholly destroyed. So the antinomian ends up saying the same thing the perfectionist says: "I have no sin." In this he deceives himself and shows that the truth is not in him. For both the remaining corruption, and all the motions thereof, are truly and properly sin" (78-79).

7. What is the difference between the status of the indwelling sin in the unregenerate man and the regenerate man?

The difference between the status of the indwelling sin in the unregenerate man and the regenerate man hinges upon dominion: the unregenerate man is under the dominion of sin, but the regenerate man is under the dominion of Christ, therefore he is not under the dominion of indwelling sin. "The true state of the case is this: in an unregenerate person corruption rules, but in a regenerate person the Spirit of God and the law of God have dominion (Rom. 8:7-14)" (79).

8. What pernicious error is suggested (and condemned) in Rom. 6:1-2?

The pernicious error suggested and condemned in Romans 6:1-2 is antinomianism, i.e. "the most wicked though of all . . . which suggests that sin is somehow less heinous if it is committed by a Christian." "We might rather," Williamson says, "that sin is much more heinous if it is committed by the Christian" (80). See Romans 6:1-2: What shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin, that grace may abound? God forbid. How shall we that are dead to sin, live any longer therein?

9. Why is sin more heinous in a believer than it is in an unbeliever?

Sin is more heinous in a believe, Williamson says, because there is greater reason for the believer to overcome sin, e.g.:

• A Christian has strength that the non-Christian does not have;
• A Christian has knowledge that the unbeliever lacks;
• A Christian, most of all, has the realization of the terrible consequences of sin because he has seen what it cost the Saviour to blot them out.

10. What is "willful sin"?

"Willful sin" is the antinomian practice of sinning--living in sin--because one is not concerned with overcoming sin.

WCF. VI. Of the Fall of Man, of Sin, and of the Punishment Thereof - 3-4. Q&A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

Prior posts for WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - Sections 1-8.

Prior posts for WCF. IV. Of Creation - Sections 1-2.

Prior posts for WCF. V. Of Providence - Sections 1-7.

WCF. VI. Of the Fall of Man, of Sin, and of the Punishment Thereof.

Sections 1-2.

Sections 3-4.

1. State the basic facts concerning our lost condition?

 Adam rebelled in the Garden of Eden, and his sin is our sin. Thus, Adam's penalty is our penalty--Romans 5:12, Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned.

2. Are these facts simple to understand or to explain?

No. As WCF. VII. notes, Adam was both the natural and federal head of all mankind, and this is so because God declared it to be so. 

3. How do we know that it is right for God to condemn us for Adam's sin?

We know it is right because we take God at his word--"and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned." "And we know that it is just for God to do so, because he always does what is right" (74).

4. What teaching in the Bible is often overlooked in this matter?

It is often overlooked that there is a corporate aspect to mankind's existence. "The Bible does not regard the human race as so many isolated individuals, each separately created by God (as were the angels), but as an organic unit created in one man--and then, one pair--having the power to produce offspring in their own likeness and image. Adam and Eve were the 'root of all mankind.' God has made 'from one blood every nation' (Acts 17:26)" (74-75).

5. What does the "creationist" teach as to the derivation of the soul?

A "creationist" believes that a man and woman generate the organic body, but that the derivation of the soul is a new creation of God that is infused or placed into the body. 

6. What does the "traducianist" teach as to the derivation of the soul?

A "traducianist" (Latin for transmitter) believes that a man and woman generate both soul and body of their progeny, albeit this is a mysterious process that is not fully understood by man. This is consistent with the belief that Adam and Eve were the root of all mankind, as well as what the Bible says regarding human generation, e.g. Hebrews 7:10, For he [Levi] was yet in the loins of his father [Abraham], when Melchisedec met him. Genesis 46:26, All the souls that came with Jacob into Egypt, which came out of his loins, besides Jacob's sons' wives, all the souls were threescore and six.

7. Which do you favor, and why?
 
I favor the "traductionist." Why? In addition to Biblical reasons given above, the teaching of the "creationist" seems deficient: if original sin is an imprint upon both soul and body, then a "creationist" implicitly teaches that God creates a new, sinful soul and places it in a body generated/begat by a man and woman. "How could the soul be created sinful by God?" (45) The answer to this rhetorical question is that it could not! for God is good!

8. In either case, what other principle helps explain our guilt in Adam's sin?

Our guilt in Adam's sin follows from the Biblical principle of representation. Adam was both the natural and the federal head of all mankind. "The act of Adam was the act of all men because he represented them" (76). Again, Romans 5:12: Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned.

9. Why was only the first sin of Adam our responsibility?

The reason only the first sin of Adam was our responsibility is because "Adam terminated his representative actions with that one sin" (75). 

10. How are all other sins related to this one?

All sins are related to this one because "by that one act he (and we) became corrupt and guilty. . . . He and we became totally depraved. And because our condition was that of being 'wholly defiled in all faculties and parts of soul and body' (WCF. VI. 2.), it followed that continual transgressions proceeded out of this condition" (75). All other sins are related to this one because will/desire/affections flow from nature, i.e. sinful will/desire/affections flow from depraved nature.
 

WCF. VI. Of the Fall of Man, of Sin, and of the Punishment Thereof - 1-2. Q&A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

Prior posts for WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - Sections 1-8.

Prior posts for WCF. IV. Of Creation - Sections 1-2.

Prior posts for WCF. V. Of Providence - Sections 1-7.

WCF. VI. Of the Fall of Man, of Sin, and of the Punishment Thereof.

Sections 1-2.

1. Why does the fall of man need much emphasis today?

It needs much emphasis today because of the prominence and acceptance of neo-orthodoxy, whose proponents typically deny that the fall took place when "an actual historical person . . . at a particular time and at a specific location on earth ate a real piece of forbidden fruit" (70).

2. What does neo-orthodoxy (the term itself) mean?

Neo-orthodoxy means "new orthodoxy."

3. From what did it [neo-orthodoxy] arise?

It arose from and was a response to the "old rationalism" indicative of the post-enlightenment era.

4. Why did it sound promising at first?

Neo-orthodoxy sounded promising because it used the historical/traditional vocabulary of the Christian Church; the proponents of neo-orthodoxy would refer to "creation," "the fall," and "election," however, they re-tooled the thing (meaning) signified by the traditional vocabulary. It had the appearance of orthodox Christian belief, but in the final analysis it lacked the content.

5. What is its tragic defect (basic to all other defects in it)?

The tragic defect of neo-orthodoxy is its "merely exchanging the old form of reliance upon the supremacy of man's reason with a new form of the same evil" (70). The tragic defect is neo-orthodoxy's treating God's Word subservient to human reason.

6. When neo-orthodoxy says that a thing is "true" doctrine, what does it mean?

It means they believe the doctrine is "true" in a nonhistorical sense, i.e. it is merely symbolically or mythically.

7. Why does neo-orthodoxy take such a position?

Neo-orthodoxy takes this position, the position of attempting to affirm the Bible (that the Bible teaches truth) and deny (that what the Bible says is actually true) at the same time, because modernism created a milieu in which it which the traditional Christian belief that the Word of God was above human wisdom/human science was viewed as untenable (see page 70).

8. What choice were neo-orthodox theologians force to make?

"There were but two choices: (1) either accept the authority of God's Word and lose standing with this world, or (2) retain the approval of the world, and reject the authority of the Bible" (70-71).

9. How were the neo-orthodox theologians more ingenious (and therefore more dangerous) than the older rationalists and modernists?

The neo-orthodox theologians chose the latter of the two choices above (retain the approval of the world, and reject the authority of the Bible), and the "ingenuity of the neo-orthodox theologians was seen in their ability to camouflage the loss of biblical authority. They did it by removing doctrine from history. And so long as they did not say that these doctrines are really true (that is, that they actually happened in history), they were free to say that they are symbolically true (that is, that they are above and beyond our world). In this way they were free to preach abut such things as "the fall" without losing their self-respect and standing with the world" (71).

10. How does the neo-orthodox attitude resemble that of Adam?

It resembles Adam's attitude (sin) in that both attempt to have truth that is untethered and insubmissive to God's word.

11. By "total depravity" which do we mean:

• that Adam had a nature like ours with added powers,
• that nothing human remains in sinful men,
• that every faculty of man's nature is corrupt and polluted,
• that fallen man is stupid whereas Adam was brilliant,
• the faculties of human nature were annihilated by the fall?

Bullet point # 3 - "that every faculty of man's nature is corrupt and polluted," i.e. "The 'total' in 'total depravity' refers to the extent of the damage rather than the degree.

12. By "total depravity," do we mean that the extent of the damage or the degree of the damage is complete in fallen human nature?

It refers to the extent. Sin is an ethical disease that affects the whole of our human nature. 

13. Does man (being totally depraved) do anything that is not sinful? Why?

Not a single thing. Man being totally depraved can only sin. "Every man (who is not redeemed) worships and serves the creature rather than the Creator (Rom. 1:25)" (72). Why is this? Because will flows from nature: if our whole human nature is sick/poisoned with the ethical disease of sin, then our will, desires, affections, and actions are sinful: "it is the disposition of sinful men to do their own will rather than the will of God, they are incapable of submitting their own will to his. The one thing that an independent will cannot do is to willingly submit, thereby ceasing to be independent" (72-73). As Romans 3:11 says, "There is none who seeks God."

WCF. V. Of Providence - Q&A - Sections 1-7.

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

Prior posts for WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - Sections 1-8.

Prior posts for WCF. IV. Of Creation - Sections 1-2.

Prior posts for WCF. V. Questions 1-7.

V. Of Providence - 1.

V. Of Providence - 2-7.

WCF. V. Of Providence - 2-7. Q & A.

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

Prior posts for WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - Sections 1-8.

Prior posts for WCF. IV. Of Creation - Sections 1-2.

Prior post for WCF. V. Of Providence - Sections 1.

WCF. V. Of Providence. Sections 2-7.

1. Name the common objections to the doctrine of absolute sovereignty. 

It is argued that if God is absolutely and exhaustively sovereign, then that means that man is not responsible for his sins.

2. Refute same.

Scripture emphatically teaches that man sins precisely because man wills to do so. Man has genuine free will, however, it is not philosophic "libertarian" free will (because there is no such thing). Man's free will is the free will of a "creature", we have freedom within the confines of a created-thing's opportunity and ability. Precisely because of the Creator-creature distinction, the Triune God, who is infinite, eternal, and immutable, allows man to do as he wills, i.e., desires/intends/chooses, as a means for rendering all that God in his providence has predetermined, i.e., "Although in relation to the foreknowledge and decree of God, the first cause, all things come to pass immutably and infallibly, yet, by the same providence, he ordereth them to fall out according to the nature of second causes, either necessarily, freely, or contingently" (WCF. V. 2.).

3. Why do the elect sometimes sin so grievously?

For a variety of reasons: as chastisement for former sins; to reveal to the elect the fierceness of sin's power; as illumination contributing to their ongoing sanctification, through revealing and enlightening the elect of deceit hidden in the dark corners of one's own heart; chiefly--to cultivate humility in them, that they might draw nearer to Jesus as the author and finisher of their faith, the Captain of their salvation. Also, falling into grievous sin teaches the elect to be on their guard, to be more watchful, to ensure that they not give Satan so much as a single wooden peg to perch upon within their hearts (seeing that the enemy oftentimes schemes to migrate sinners from lesser to greater sins). Certainly there is a plethora of "sundry other just and holy ends" (WCF. V. 5), but it would be impossible to denote them. We must be content with God's Word alone: Romans 8:28, "And we know that all things work together for good to them that love God, to them who are the called according to his purpose."

4. Why do the reprobate sometimes act better than we might expect them to?

"Because God sometimes enables the conscience of the unbeliever to overrule him" (358). The imago Dei was only defaced by the Fall, therefore, even in unbelievers there are "remnants of their old nature" (tracing back to the sinless nature of Adam). "The conscience still retains some recollection of the law of God which was written there in the beginning (Rom. 2:14-15)" (67).

5. Is it correct to speak of a Christian as both an old and new man?

Absolutely not. A Christian was the "old man" but is now the "new man." There are, however, sinful effects of the nature of the old man that a Christian must be guarded against until his death and consummation of Eternal Life. This is why mortification and quickening of the Spirit is so important for Christian Living.

6. Is a Christian "responsible" for the sin he does under the influence of "the remnants of the old nature"?

Yes. Absolutely. The new man sins, but the source of the sin is not from the new man, but, as said above, the effects of the nature of the old man. "The regenerate man sins, but he cannot give himself to the willful and continual practice of sin: 'For His [God's] seed remains in him; and he cannot sin, because he has been born of God' (1 John 3:9)" (66).

8. Explain and harmonize Paul's statements in Romans 7:20 and 7:24.

Romans 7:20, "Now if I do that I would not, it is no more I that do it, but sin that dwelleth in me." Paul traces source of sin to the remnant-effect of former sinful nature.

Romans 7:24, "O wretched man that I am! who shall deliver me from the body of this death?" Paul clearly believes he himself is responsible for his own sinful actions.

9. Why is the final section of this chapter of the Confession important? 

The final section is Section 7: "As the providence of God doth, in general, reach to all creatures; so, after a most special manner, it taketh care of his Church, and disposeth all things to the good thereof." Here we learn that God's providence in a special way is concerned with God's redemptive aims (cf. Rom. 8:28; Eph. 3:11).

WCF. V. Of Providence - 1. Q & A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

Prior posts for WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - Sections 1-8.

Prior posts for WCF. IV. Of Creation - Sections 1-2.

WCF. V. Of Providence. Question 1.

1. There are two errors ruled out by this section of the Confession: the first teaches that things happen by ______. The second teaches that things happen by ______.

The first error ruled out is that things happen by chance. The second error ruled out is that things happen by fate ("mechanical necessity"). Both of these errors are contrary to Scripture.

2. With which of these errors are the Arminians in (perhaps unconscious) agreement?

The former error. Generally speaking, Arminians teach "that the will of man acts without any predetermined certainty" (61). In the final analysis, Arminians teach that things happen by chance.

3. Cite a Scripture text which proves that the will of man is not unpredictable.

Proverbs 21:1, "The king's heart is in the hand of the Lord, as the rivers of water: he turneth it whithersoever he will."

4. What scriptural teaching about God helps us to understand why there are some things that man cannot do?

Will is determined by character/nature. For example, God cannot lie (see Hebrews 6:18); lying is contrary to God's character/nature. Man's will is also determined by character/nature. Man's will is depraved; it is filth-ridden by the ethical disease of sin. This means that "so long as the character of a man is sinful and corrupt (as received by ordinary generation from Adam), there is no "chance" that he will do that which is pleasing to God" (61). Thus, there are some things that man cannot do--sinful man cannot please God.

5. Why is there no chance that an unconverted man will do the will of God, or that a converted man will not begin to do the will of God?

See latter end of prior answer regarding former question. Regarding the latter question, as I said earlier, will is determined by character/nature: "But when God regenerates a man so that he receives a new and different character, there is no "chance" that he will not begin to do good. 'For it is God who works in you both to will and to do for His good pleasure' (Phil. 2:13)" (61).

6. What is the difference between fate and divine sovereignty?

Fate is a matter of "mechanical necessity" but divine sovereignty is a matter of a personal (Triune!) divine decree. They are as different as the day is long. "Mechanical fate is at the very heart meaningless, merciless, and hopeless. But the certainty of divinely ordered providence is meaningful, merciful, and hopeful" (61).

7. What teachings of Scripture aid us in believing that God controls everything?

Scripture teaches that God created all things, and that both the end and the means were decreed by God.

8. Cite a Scripture text to prove that God controls everything.
Genesis 1:1, "In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth."

Psalm 135:6, "Whatsoever the Lord pleased, that did he in heaven, and in earth, in the seas, and all deep places."

Daniel 4:35, "And all the inhabitants of the earth are reputed as nothing: and he doeth according to his will in the army of heaven, and among the inhabitants of the earth: and none can stay his hand, or say unto him, What doest thou?"

Acts 15:18, "Known unto God are all his works from the beginning of the world."

1 Peter 1:2, "Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied."

Blessings and Benefits

Westminster Confession of Faith, Chapter VII, Section IV--This covenant of grace is frequently set  forth in Scripture by the name of a testament, in reference to the death of Jesus Christ the testator, and to the everlasting inheritance, with all things belonging to it, therein bequeathed.

A. A. Hodge expounds:

Christ as mediatorial King, administers to his people the benefits of his covenant; and by his providence, his Word, and his Spirit, he causes them to become severally recipients of these blessings, according to his will. These benefits he offers to all men in the gospel. He promises to grant them on the condition they are received. In the case of his own people, he works faith in them, and as their Surety engages for them and makes good all that is suspended upon or conveyed through their agency. In the whole sphere of our experience every Christian duty is a Christian grace; for we can fulfill the conditions of repentance and faith only as it is given to us by our Surety. All Christian graces also involve Christian duties. So that Christ at once purchases salvation for us, and applies salvation to us; commands us to do, and works in us to obey; offers us grace and eternal life on conditions, and gives us the conditions and the grace and the eternal life. What he gives us he expects us to exercise. What he demands of us he at once gives us. Viewed on God's side, faith and repentance are gifts of the Son. Viewed on our side, they are duties and gracious experiences, the first symptoms of salvation begun--instruments wherewith further grace may be attained. Viewed in connection with the covenant of grace, they are elements of the promise of the Father to the Son, conditioned upon his mediatorial work. Viewed in relation to salvation, they are indices of its commencement and conditions sine qua non [something that is essential, something that is indispensable] of its completion (A. A. Hodge, The Confession of Faith, 127-128).

WCF. IV. Of Creation - Q & A - Sections 1-2

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Questions 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Questions 1-3.

Prior posts for WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - Questions 1-8.

Prior posts for WCF. IV. Questions 1-2.

Prior post for WCF. IV. Of Creation - 1.

Prior post for WCF. IV. Of Creation - 2.

WCF. IV. Of Creation - 2. Q & A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

Prior posts for WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - Sections 1-8.

Prior post for WCF. IV. Of Creation - Section 1.

WCF. IV. Of Creation - 2.

1. In what do evolutionists and Christians superficially agree?

Generally speaking, both agree that man is the crowning or highest creature on earth.

2. Why do we say this agreement is superficial?

An evolutionist believes that this range of lower to higher forms of creation is all derivative of blind and neutral mechanical forces. A Christian, however, believes God's immediate will and creative word is at back these forms of creation.

3. Is it anti-Christian to believe that God employed many basic structural designs in lower forms of life and then later in creating man?

No. It is not. We may see similar structural designs, but there was no man (human) until God formed him from the dust of the ground and breathed life into him and called him Adam. "But there can be no yielding at one point: man did not "gradually emerge" from the slime, but was created by an immediate divine act in which matter and spirit were fused together and given existence as a living soul" (57).

4. At what precise point must the Christian never yield respecting man's creation?

See answer above for Question 3.

5. Is it possible that man may have developed from lower forms of "semi-human" beings? Why?

Absolutely not. Man's spirit came directly from God. God fused spirit with matter so that man became a "living soul" (Genesis 2:7), that is, human.

6. What does evolutionary dogma say about "early" human existence?

Evolutionary dogma insists man's genesis being one of dim-wits, pertaining to the caveman variety. This is bogus. Man from the beginning, according to Scripture, was endowed with a highly developed intelligence. For example, evolutionists believe speech is a phenomenon of human evolution, but the Bible describes speech as intricate to man being made in the image of God. As A. W. Tozer said, "Thought and speech are God's gifts to creatures made in His image; these are intimately associated with Him and impossible apart from Him. It is highly significant that the first word was the Word: 'And the Word was with God, and the Word was God.' We may speak because God spoke" (The Knowledge of the Holy, 2).

7. What does the Bible say about "early" human existence?

See answer above for Question 6, and Romans 2:15 says the work of the law is written in our hearts.

8. In what sense was Adam's knowledge primitive?

Adam's knowledge was primitive in a non-cumulative sense: Adam was created with genuine knowledge, albeit, knowledge that was not composite, i.e., Adam didn't know about the latest theories of quantum-physics, about the ocean's tides, etc.

9. Why do scientists believe in the unity of the human race?

Scientists believe in the unity of the human race because they believe man descended from an original pair (I don't know of any scientists who maintain that human-evolution occurred in-parallel and simultaneously in different geographic regions).

10. Why do Christians believe in the unity of the human race?

Christians believe in the unity of the human race because of God's revelation: Acts 17:26 And hath made of one blood all nations of men for to dwell on all the face of the earth, and hath determined the times before appointed, and the bounds of their habitation. Referencing this truth, Williamson says, "And the Christian resists all racist pride, not on the basis of the evolutionary dogma of man's greatness, but the biblical doctrine of creation and the fall" (58).

11. Which is correct: the soul is the image of God, the soul contains the image of God, man has the image of God, or man is the image of God?

The correct formulation is "Man is the image of God." Williamson says, "It would seem to be more scriptural to simply affirm that man (in the totality of his physical-scriptural being) is (rather than merely contains) the image of God" (58).

12. Why may it be that the body has traditionally been excluded from the image?

Williamson thinks this may be the case because of "pagan holdovers" where the body (physical) is considered evil and the spirit (non-physical) is considered good.

13. If God is triune, and man is God's image, then what must we see in the unity of human personality?

In human personality we see "endowed capacity for knowledge, holiness, and righteousness" (59), that is, we see diversity. "Man has one personality, but various faculties - mind, heart, and will" (357). These three traits correspond to functions as a prophet, priest, and king. Adam was created in the image of the Triune God and was to function and fulfill duties of each of these offices: "As a prophet man was endowed with the physical sense and mental ability to learn the truth. As a priest he possessed the sensibility and desire to worship God in true holiness. And as a king he possessed the physical and mental power and ability to subject in righteousness all things to the purpose and will of God" (59).

14. Do you find Scripture evidence for this diversity?

"Yes, the Scriptures teach that man is a rational, emotional, volitional personality (Isa. 1:18; Acts 24:25; Col. 3:9-10; Rom. 12:10; Matt. 26:39; John 1:13)" (357).

WCF. IV. Of Creation - 1. Q & A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

Prior posts for WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - Sections 1-8.

WCF. IV. Of Creation - 1.

1. Who created the world?

The true God created the world - the world derives its existence from the Triune Lord. According to Genesis 1:1, "The world is created, not self-existent, and it is God, the true God, who caused it to be" (53).

2. What are the basic points of dogma held by "modern science"?

Modern science teaches the world is "self-existent or eternal . . . that it does not have a derived existence . . . that the present form of the world is the result of a process of selection controlled, not by God, but by the 'principle' of 'the survival of the fittest' . . . that there is no 'ultimate' reason for it" (53). This also was axiom at back Greek-pagan-thought. Heraclitus (c. 500 B.C.) was a Greek philosopher, and, regarding reality, he said, "Neither has any god nor any human made this cosmos, rather it always was and is and will be" (frag. 30). Also, Heraclitus was admired by Cynics, Stoics, and, of course, Nietzsche (see Archetypes of Wisdom: An Introduction to Philosophy, 64).

3. Is there any proof for the theory of evolution? Why?

Williamson calls evolution a "theory" and a "dogma" that has been believed and accepted for over a century, but "there is still not one iota of "proof" that it is true" [italics original] (54). There can be no "proof" for the theory of evolution because . . . see answer below for Question 4.

4. What is truth?

 "Truth is simply that which really is. There is only one truth, because there is only one reality. Therefore, if the Scriptures are true, they merely tell us what really is (or was, or will yet be). When by investigation men also discover what really is in the world of nature, they simply grasp another aspect of the same total truth" (54).

5. Where is truth found?

Truth is found in the "book of life" (the Bible) and the "book of nature" - both have been authored by God.

6. What are some common false assumptions of those who accept modern scientific dogma?

That modern science can deduce truth from observing only the "book of nature". Truth is what really is . . . thus, you cannot deduce truth from the raw facts of nature alone. Truth involves both the thing and God's revelation (God's Word) regarding the thing. In addition to this, there are any number of false assumptions related to production of fossils, assumptions regarding vast stretches of time (i.e., "billions-and-billions-of-years-ago"), etc.

7. State concisely your reply to each of these false assumptions.

I prefer not to. If you address the epistemological presuppositions at back false assumptions, then you don't need to address each of the false assumptions.

8. What is your view of the "days" of Genesis 1?

These are 24-hour periods of time. I believe Genesis 1 is a historical narrative of a one-week-sequence of time.

9. Is the Hebrew term for "day" always used to denote a twenty-four hour period?

No, it is not. As any Lexicon will show.

10. Is there any good reason not to believe that God created the world in six twenty-four hour days? if so, state them.

No - there are no good reasons. The reasoning is always driven by an insipid-and-mildew Gnosticism, so it de facto cannot be good reasoning for a Christian.

WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - Q & A - Questions 1-8.

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

Prior posts for WCF. III. Questions 1-8.

III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 1-2.

III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 3-5.

III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 6.

III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 7-8.

WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 7-8. Q & A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

Prior posts for WCF. III.

III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 1-2.

III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 3-5.

III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 6.

WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 7-8.

1. Precisely what has God determined to do with respect to the reprobate?

With respect to the reprobate, God has sovereignly determined to withhold his grace from some men, and this God does according to his perfect counsel.

2. Why has God passed by these particular persons?

God passes by the reprobate according to his good pleasure (see Romans 9:18 and Ephesians 1:5).

3. Why do they receive damnation?

The reason the reprobate receive damnation is wholly within God. i.e., the reason is known by the triune God - "God elects or passes by as, and because, it pleases him" (38). The reprobate are not passed over by God because of their sin; that cannot be the reason because "all have sinned" (Romans 3:23). However, the reprobate receive damnation because they have been left in their sin, which in the end brings upon them God's perfect and holy wrath.

4. How has this doctrine been abused?

This doctrine has been abused by those who say, "If God passes over the reprobate, then that means it is God's fault they receive punishment." G. I. Williamson says, "This [the abuse just mentioned] is diabolical for the simple reason that God's withholding of grace does not make the sinner guilty and liable to punishment; it merely leaves him in that condition. "The wrath of God abideth (i.e., remains) on him" (John 3:36)" (39).

5. Why has this doctrine been refused?

This doctrine is refused by those who say, "If God does this, then God is arbitrary, unfair/unjust, and unkind.

6. Is God "arbitrary" in his actions?

Yes. God is arbitrary, however, God is not unjust. Romans 9:18 - "Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth."

7. Is it wrong for God to be "arbitrary" in his actions?

No. He is God. God's decree determines what will be, and their is nothing higher than the will of the triune God. In his answers to the questions at the back of the book, G. I. Williamson says, "He has absolute right to do as he will with creatures he has made, especially in view of their sin" (275).

8. What text in Scripture shows that reprobation (God's withholding of grace, and passing by) does not make a sinner guilty and liable to punishment?

John 3:36 - "He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him."

"God's sovereign discrimination concerns those who are already under his wrath and curse. His discrimination concerns who shall not be left in that condition" (275). This is declared by the Prophet Habakkuk: "O Lord, I have heard thy speech, and was afraid: O Lord, revive thy work in the midst of the years, in the midst of the years make known; in wrath remember mercy" (Habakkuk 3:2). This fact, that "in wrath remember mercy", is at back of the salvation of every Christian.

9. Should this doctrine be taught? Why? How?

Yes, Yes, three times I say, Yes. It should be taught to counter false presumption. It should be taught in a manner that spurs on diligence to our faithful-and-loving triune God; it should be taught in a manner that engenders humility before our merciful triune God.

 

WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 6. Q & A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

Prior posts WCF. III.

III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 1-2.

III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 3-5.

WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 6.

1. Read Acts 27:14-44. What divine end was promised by God (v. 24)? What means did the inspired apostle require for attaining this end (v. 31)? Was the end reached? Were the means used as required? Which then was ordained (decreed, or predetermined) by God, the end or the means?

God says in verse 24 that Paul's life will be preserved, because he must be brought to Caesar, and that the lives of "all them that sail with thee" will also be preserved. The means required for preservation were obeying the inspired Apostles command, "Except these abide in the ship, ye cannot be saved" (their lives will be preserved if they remain in the ship and obey Paul's instructions). Yes, the end was reached: verse 44 says, "And so it came to pass, that they escaped all safe to land." Both the end and the means were decreed by God. God predetermined that all would be preserved through the storm and shipwreck, and God predetermined the means would be by listening and obeying Paul's instructions.

2. What is wrong with this popular statement: "If I'm elect then I will be saved no matter what I do?"

This popular statement is wrong and foolish because it denies that God predetermines the end as well as the means, i.e., "Paul links divine predestination (the end) with calling, justification and glorification (means to this end) (Rom. 8:30)" (35). The popular statement above is wrong because it is not a fully Biblical view, since God ordains both the end and the means. In light of Romans 8:30, you cannot say you will be saved (the end) no matter what you do (the means).

3. By what is the plan of God never contradicted?

"The plan of God is never contradicted by the works of God by which the plan is executed" (35). The Godhead is in perfect harmony, therefore, the Godhead's decree (end) and executed plan (means) are in perfect harmony. Their is no contradiction within the Godhead, therefore, there is no contradiction within the Godhead's decrees.

4. Why may we not say that Christ's death was intended for the salvation of all?

Scripture says that not all men will be saved, therefore, Christ's death (the means) cannot be intended for the salvation of all.

WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 3-5. Q & A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

Prior post for III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 1-2.

WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 3-5.

1. Why is the doctrine of predestination so seldom acknowledged even though it is so clearly taught in Scripture?

The doctrine of predestination is so seldom acknowledged because of the perversity of man. Scripture clearly teaches this doctrine, but it is man who refuses to hear God's word by faith (and with humility). "And the chief cause of man's constant misreading of Scripture regarding this matter is his perennial desire to have a better opinion of himself than is warranted" (33).

2. What does sinful man deserve?

Sinful man deserves wrath and damnation.

3. What classic example in Scripture proves this doctrine [doctrine of predestination]?

The classic example is of Jacob and Esau - Romans 9:11-15 "For the children [Rebecca's children] being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth; It was said unto her, The elder shall serve the younger. As it is written, Jacob have I loved, but Esau have I hated. What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God? God forbid. For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion."

4. How much did they have "in common" to begin with? At the "end"?

According to their nature, they being twins, to begin they had everything in common. In the end, however, they were totally different - "Jacob was chosen to eternal life, and Esau was passed by and left to the punishment he deserved" (33).

5. How does this case prove that it was God (alone) who made them differ?

This case proves that it was God alone who made them differ because Romans 9:18 says, "He [God] hath mercy on whom he will, and whom he will he hardeneth."

6. What Scripture asserts that God has "the right" to do this?

God is the Creator, thus, he has a right over his creation, as Romans 9:21 teaches - "Hath not the potter [God] power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?." Commenting on this Williamson says, "God has a right to give damnation to Esau, who deserves damnation, and eternal life to Jacob, who also deserves damnation" (33).

7. What is meant by saying that God's predestination is not "conditional"?

Williamson says, "But what is of cardinal importance is to recognize that God's sovereign determination of the destinies of the souls of men is not conditional. There is no difference between Jacob and Esau for the sake of which God chose the one and rejected the other" (33). God's predestination of man is wholly of grace. God's predestination of man is not conditioned by the works of man.

8. If man could fulfill some condition upon which basis God would then elect him, what teachings of Scripture would be denied?

If man could fulfill some condition upon which basis God would then elect him, it would deny what Scripture teaches in Ephesians 2:8-9 - "For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should boast." - and in Romans 11:6 - "And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work."

9. Why has God chosen the ones he has chosen?

God has chosen the ones he has chosen because of grace, that is, because of pure, unmerited favor. Ephesians 2:5-6 "Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved;) And hath raised us up together, and made us sit together in heavenly places in Christ Jesus." Williamson says, "Scripture informs us that divine election is conditioned upon not something in the creature but rather something in God. It is the good pleasure, the delight of God, which is the basis of Election" (34). See Luke 10:21 - "In that hour Jesus rejoiced in spirit, and said, I thank thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, that thou hast hid these things from the wise and prudent, and hast revealed them unto babes: even so, Father; for so it seemed good in thy sight."

10. Why has God chosen some and passed others by?

Why did God do this? This God has done for his own glory. "God will bring glory to himself, or rather will manifest his glory. He will display the perfection of his holiness by wrath against sin in the destruction of the wicked and he will display the perfection of his mercy and love in saving the elect" (34). If what we stated earlier is true, that "Sinful man deserves wrath and damnation," then it is obvious that both the perfection of God's holy justice and the perfection of God's merciful grace manifest his glory.

WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 1-2. Q & A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 1-2.

1. What distinguishes a "person" from all other beings or things?

A person has a "will" and acts according to purpose, which distinguishes the person from other beings and impersonal things.

2. What kind of "plan" or "purpose" must of necessity belong to an "infinite, eternal, and unchangeable" personal being?

Such a "plan" or "purpose" must necessarily be infinite, eternal, and unchangeable, for it will have the attributes of the person whose "will" is at back the plan. "God is an infinite, eternal, and unchangeable Person. Therefore his plan or purpose must ever have been a part of his infinite, eternal, and unchangeable existence" (30).

3. Cite a Scripture text proving that all existence is controlled by God.

Ephesians 3:11 speaks of God's eternal purpose which He purposed - "According to the eternal purpose which he purposed in Christ Jesus our Lord." And Ephesians 1:11 speaks of God's controlling all things - "In whom also we have obtained an inheritance, being predestinated according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his own will."

4. Cite a Scripture text proving that the most minute details of existence are controlled by God.

Ephesians 1:11 speaks of God's controlling all things ("all" includes even the most minute details) - "In whom also we have obtained an inheritance, being predestinated according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his own will." Also, in Matthew 10:29, Christ says, "Are not two sparrows sold for a farthing? and one of them shall not fall on the ground without your Father."

5. Cite a text proving that seemingly accidental events are controlled by God.

The narrative in 1 Kings 22 records several seemingly accidental events which are controlled by God.

6. Cite a text proving that evil acts are predetermined by God.

In Matthew 18:7 Jesus says, "Woe unto the world because of offences! for it must needs be that offences come; but woe to that man by whom the offence cometh!" God has predetermined/predestined all events, even evil, but these acts are committed because men freely choose to do so.

7, Cite a text proving that evil acts are nevertheless "free."

Acts 2:22-23 teaches that God foreordained that Christ would be delivered for death by the rulers of Israel, but it being done on account of their wicked volition - "Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know: Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain."

8.. Cite a text proving that "good" acts done by regenerate persons are predetermined by God, and yet also "free."

Because "will" flows from nature, the regenerate, who have been given a new nature through regeneration, are capable of freely doing "good" acts, this being taught in Matthew 7:17a - "Even so every good tree bringeth forth good fruit."

9. What do we mean when we say that a man is "free," or acts "freely"?

Man is free if "not forced by any power outside himself to do that which is contrary to 'what he wants to do'" (31).

10. Why are the unregenerate, though free, certain to do only evil?

The unregenerate are free, they have liberty, but they do not have the ability to do good because of their evil nature (due to original sin). They do not have the ability to do good because will flows from nature. As Matthew 7:18 says, "A good tree cannot bring forth evil fruit, neither can a corrupt tree bring forth good fruit."

11. Why are the regenerate, though free, certain to please God?

They are certain to please God because they have a regenerate nature (which is a gift given to them by God), thus, they have a good will "which is in accord with the will of God" (31).

12. Can God foresee (or foreknow) before he predetermines? Vice versa? Why?. 

No and No. God's foreknowledge and predestination are not at odds with one another. As Williamson says, God foreknows things with certainty because God guarantees the certainty. God determines all that exists. This is the case because of the impossibility of the contrary, i.e., if it were not true then God would not be the only self-existent being.

WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Q & A - Questions 1-3.

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Questions 1-3. 

     II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - 1-2.
     II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - 3.