WCF. V. Of Providence - 1. Q & A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

Prior posts for WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - Sections 1-8.

Prior posts for WCF. IV. Of Creation - Sections 1-2.

WCF. V. Of Providence. Question 1.

1. There are two errors ruled out by this section of the Confession: the first teaches that things happen by ______. The second teaches that things happen by ______.

The first error ruled out is that things happen by chance. The second error ruled out is that things happen by fate ("mechanical necessity"). Both of these errors are contrary to Scripture.

2. With which of these errors are the Arminians in (perhaps unconscious) agreement?

The former error. Generally speaking, Arminians teach "that the will of man acts without any predetermined certainty" (61). In the final analysis, Arminians teach that things happen by chance.

3. Cite a Scripture text which proves that the will of man is not unpredictable.

Proverbs 21:1, "The king's heart is in the hand of the Lord, as the rivers of water: he turneth it whithersoever he will."

4. What scriptural teaching about God helps us to understand why there are some things that man cannot do?

Will is determined by character/nature. For example, God cannot lie (see Hebrews 6:18); lying is contrary to God's character/nature. Man's will is also determined by character/nature. Man's will is depraved; it is filth-ridden by the ethical disease of sin. This means that "so long as the character of a man is sinful and corrupt (as received by ordinary generation from Adam), there is no "chance" that he will do that which is pleasing to God" (61). Thus, there are some things that man cannot do--sinful man cannot please God.

5. Why is there no chance that an unconverted man will do the will of God, or that a converted man will not begin to do the will of God?

See latter end of prior answer regarding former question. Regarding the latter question, as I said earlier, will is determined by character/nature: "But when God regenerates a man so that he receives a new and different character, there is no "chance" that he will not begin to do good. 'For it is God who works in you both to will and to do for His good pleasure' (Phil. 2:13)" (61).

6. What is the difference between fate and divine sovereignty?

Fate is a matter of "mechanical necessity" but divine sovereignty is a matter of a personal (Triune!) divine decree. They are as different as the day is long. "Mechanical fate is at the very heart meaningless, merciless, and hopeless. But the certainty of divinely ordered providence is meaningful, merciful, and hopeful" (61).

7. What teachings of Scripture aid us in believing that God controls everything?

Scripture teaches that God created all things, and that both the end and the means were decreed by God.

8. Cite a Scripture text to prove that God controls everything.
Genesis 1:1, "In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth."

Psalm 135:6, "Whatsoever the Lord pleased, that did he in heaven, and in earth, in the seas, and all deep places."

Daniel 4:35, "And all the inhabitants of the earth are reputed as nothing: and he doeth according to his will in the army of heaven, and among the inhabitants of the earth: and none can stay his hand, or say unto him, What doest thou?"

Acts 15:18, "Known unto God are all his works from the beginning of the world."

1 Peter 1:2, "Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied."

WCF. IV. Of Creation - Q & A - Sections 1-2

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Questions 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Questions 1-3.

Prior posts for WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - Questions 1-8.

Prior posts for WCF. IV. Questions 1-2.

Prior post for WCF. IV. Of Creation - 1.

Prior post for WCF. IV. Of Creation - 2.

WCF. IV. Of Creation - 2. Q & A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

Prior posts for WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - Sections 1-8.

Prior post for WCF. IV. Of Creation - Section 1.

WCF. IV. Of Creation - 2.

1. In what do evolutionists and Christians superficially agree?

Generally speaking, both agree that man is the crowning or highest creature on earth.

2. Why do we say this agreement is superficial?

An evolutionist believes that this range of lower to higher forms of creation is all derivative of blind and neutral mechanical forces. A Christian, however, believes God's immediate will and creative word is at back these forms of creation.

3. Is it anti-Christian to believe that God employed many basic structural designs in lower forms of life and then later in creating man?

No. It is not. We may see similar structural designs, but there was no man (human) until God formed him from the dust of the ground and breathed life into him and called him Adam. "But there can be no yielding at one point: man did not "gradually emerge" from the slime, but was created by an immediate divine act in which matter and spirit were fused together and given existence as a living soul" (57).

4. At what precise point must the Christian never yield respecting man's creation?

See answer above for Question 3.

5. Is it possible that man may have developed from lower forms of "semi-human" beings? Why?

Absolutely not. Man's spirit came directly from God. God fused spirit with matter so that man became a "living soul" (Genesis 2:7), that is, human.

6. What does evolutionary dogma say about "early" human existence?

Evolutionary dogma insists man's genesis being one of dim-wits, pertaining to the caveman variety. This is bogus. Man from the beginning, according to Scripture, was endowed with a highly developed intelligence. For example, evolutionists believe speech is a phenomenon of human evolution, but the Bible describes speech as intricate to man being made in the image of God. As A. W. Tozer said, "Thought and speech are God's gifts to creatures made in His image; these are intimately associated with Him and impossible apart from Him. It is highly significant that the first word was the Word: 'And the Word was with God, and the Word was God.' We may speak because God spoke" (The Knowledge of the Holy, 2).

7. What does the Bible say about "early" human existence?

See answer above for Question 6, and Romans 2:15 says the work of the law is written in our hearts.

8. In what sense was Adam's knowledge primitive?

Adam's knowledge was primitive in a non-cumulative sense: Adam was created with genuine knowledge, albeit, knowledge that was not composite, i.e., Adam didn't know about the latest theories of quantum-physics, about the ocean's tides, etc.

9. Why do scientists believe in the unity of the human race?

Scientists believe in the unity of the human race because they believe man descended from an original pair (I don't know of any scientists who maintain that human-evolution occurred in-parallel and simultaneously in different geographic regions).

10. Why do Christians believe in the unity of the human race?

Christians believe in the unity of the human race because of God's revelation: Acts 17:26 And hath made of one blood all nations of men for to dwell on all the face of the earth, and hath determined the times before appointed, and the bounds of their habitation. Referencing this truth, Williamson says, "And the Christian resists all racist pride, not on the basis of the evolutionary dogma of man's greatness, but the biblical doctrine of creation and the fall" (58).

11. Which is correct: the soul is the image of God, the soul contains the image of God, man has the image of God, or man is the image of God?

The correct formulation is "Man is the image of God." Williamson says, "It would seem to be more scriptural to simply affirm that man (in the totality of his physical-scriptural being) is (rather than merely contains) the image of God" (58).

12. Why may it be that the body has traditionally been excluded from the image?

Williamson thinks this may be the case because of "pagan holdovers" where the body (physical) is considered evil and the spirit (non-physical) is considered good.

13. If God is triune, and man is God's image, then what must we see in the unity of human personality?

In human personality we see "endowed capacity for knowledge, holiness, and righteousness" (59), that is, we see diversity. "Man has one personality, but various faculties - mind, heart, and will" (357). These three traits correspond to functions as a prophet, priest, and king. Adam was created in the image of the Triune God and was to function and fulfill duties of each of these offices: "As a prophet man was endowed with the physical sense and mental ability to learn the truth. As a priest he possessed the sensibility and desire to worship God in true holiness. And as a king he possessed the physical and mental power and ability to subject in righteousness all things to the purpose and will of God" (59).

14. Do you find Scripture evidence for this diversity?

"Yes, the Scriptures teach that man is a rational, emotional, volitional personality (Isa. 1:18; Acts 24:25; Col. 3:9-10; Rom. 12:10; Matt. 26:39; John 1:13)" (357).

Frigid Teaching

"For nothing is more frigid than a teacher who shows his philosophy only in words: this is to act the part not of a teacher, but of a hypocrite" (St. Chrysostom, Homilies on the Acts of the Apostles, Homily I. NPNF1 11:4).

Frigid teaching is the worst, indeed. Yowsers!

WCF. IV. Of Creation - 1. Q & A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

Prior posts for WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - Sections 1-8.

WCF. IV. Of Creation - 1.

1. Who created the world?

The true God created the world - the world derives its existence from the Triune Lord. According to Genesis 1:1, "The world is created, not self-existent, and it is God, the true God, who caused it to be" (53).

2. What are the basic points of dogma held by "modern science"?

Modern science teaches the world is "self-existent or eternal . . . that it does not have a derived existence . . . that the present form of the world is the result of a process of selection controlled, not by God, but by the 'principle' of 'the survival of the fittest' . . . that there is no 'ultimate' reason for it" (53). This also was axiom at back Greek-pagan-thought. Heraclitus (c. 500 B.C.) was a Greek philosopher, and, regarding reality, he said, "Neither has any god nor any human made this cosmos, rather it always was and is and will be" (frag. 30). Also, Heraclitus was admired by Cynics, Stoics, and, of course, Nietzsche (see Archetypes of Wisdom: An Introduction to Philosophy, 64).

3. Is there any proof for the theory of evolution? Why?

Williamson calls evolution a "theory" and a "dogma" that has been believed and accepted for over a century, but "there is still not one iota of "proof" that it is true" [italics original] (54). There can be no "proof" for the theory of evolution because . . . see answer below for Question 4.

4. What is truth?

 "Truth is simply that which really is. There is only one truth, because there is only one reality. Therefore, if the Scriptures are true, they merely tell us what really is (or was, or will yet be). When by investigation men also discover what really is in the world of nature, they simply grasp another aspect of the same total truth" (54).

5. Where is truth found?

Truth is found in the "book of life" (the Bible) and the "book of nature" - both have been authored by God.

6. What are some common false assumptions of those who accept modern scientific dogma?

That modern science can deduce truth from observing only the "book of nature". Truth is what really is . . . thus, you cannot deduce truth from the raw facts of nature alone. Truth involves both the thing and God's revelation (God's Word) regarding the thing. In addition to this, there are any number of false assumptions related to production of fossils, assumptions regarding vast stretches of time (i.e., "billions-and-billions-of-years-ago"), etc.

7. State concisely your reply to each of these false assumptions.

I prefer not to. If you address the epistemological presuppositions at back false assumptions, then you don't need to address each of the false assumptions.

8. What is your view of the "days" of Genesis 1?

These are 24-hour periods of time. I believe Genesis 1 is a historical narrative of a one-week-sequence of time.

9. Is the Hebrew term for "day" always used to denote a twenty-four hour period?

No, it is not. As any Lexicon will show.

10. Is there any good reason not to believe that God created the world in six twenty-four hour days? if so, state them.

No - there are no good reasons. The reasoning is always driven by an insipid-and-mildew Gnosticism, so it de facto cannot be good reasoning for a Christian.

WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - Q & A - Questions 1-8.

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

Prior posts for WCF. III. Questions 1-8.

III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 1-2.

III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 3-5.

III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 6.

III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 7-8.

WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 7-8. Q & A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

Prior posts for WCF. III.

III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 1-2.

III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 3-5.

III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 6.

WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 7-8.

1. Precisely what has God determined to do with respect to the reprobate?

With respect to the reprobate, God has sovereignly determined to withhold his grace from some men, and this God does according to his perfect counsel.

2. Why has God passed by these particular persons?

God passes by the reprobate according to his good pleasure (see Romans 9:18 and Ephesians 1:5).

3. Why do they receive damnation?

The reason the reprobate receive damnation is wholly within God. i.e., the reason is known by the triune God - "God elects or passes by as, and because, it pleases him" (38). The reprobate are not passed over by God because of their sin; that cannot be the reason because "all have sinned" (Romans 3:23). However, the reprobate receive damnation because they have been left in their sin, which in the end brings upon them God's perfect and holy wrath.

4. How has this doctrine been abused?

This doctrine has been abused by those who say, "If God passes over the reprobate, then that means it is God's fault they receive punishment." G. I. Williamson says, "This [the abuse just mentioned] is diabolical for the simple reason that God's withholding of grace does not make the sinner guilty and liable to punishment; it merely leaves him in that condition. "The wrath of God abideth (i.e., remains) on him" (John 3:36)" (39).

5. Why has this doctrine been refused?

This doctrine is refused by those who say, "If God does this, then God is arbitrary, unfair/unjust, and unkind.

6. Is God "arbitrary" in his actions?

Yes. God is arbitrary, however, God is not unjust. Romans 9:18 - "Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth."

7. Is it wrong for God to be "arbitrary" in his actions?

No. He is God. God's decree determines what will be, and their is nothing higher than the will of the triune God. In his answers to the questions at the back of the book, G. I. Williamson says, "He has absolute right to do as he will with creatures he has made, especially in view of their sin" (275).

8. What text in Scripture shows that reprobation (God's withholding of grace, and passing by) does not make a sinner guilty and liable to punishment?

John 3:36 - "He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him."

"God's sovereign discrimination concerns those who are already under his wrath and curse. His discrimination concerns who shall not be left in that condition" (275). This is declared by the Prophet Habakkuk: "O Lord, I have heard thy speech, and was afraid: O Lord, revive thy work in the midst of the years, in the midst of the years make known; in wrath remember mercy" (Habakkuk 3:2). This fact, that "in wrath remember mercy", is at back of the salvation of every Christian.

9. Should this doctrine be taught? Why? How?

Yes, Yes, three times I say, Yes. It should be taught to counter false presumption. It should be taught in a manner that spurs on diligence to our faithful-and-loving triune God; it should be taught in a manner that engenders humility before our merciful triune God.

 

WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 6. Q & A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

Prior posts WCF. III.

III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 1-2.

III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 3-5.

WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 6.

1. Read Acts 27:14-44. What divine end was promised by God (v. 24)? What means did the inspired apostle require for attaining this end (v. 31)? Was the end reached? Were the means used as required? Which then was ordained (decreed, or predetermined) by God, the end or the means?

God says in verse 24 that Paul's life will be preserved, because he must be brought to Caesar, and that the lives of "all them that sail with thee" will also be preserved. The means required for preservation were obeying the inspired Apostles command, "Except these abide in the ship, ye cannot be saved" (their lives will be preserved if they remain in the ship and obey Paul's instructions). Yes, the end was reached: verse 44 says, "And so it came to pass, that they escaped all safe to land." Both the end and the means were decreed by God. God predetermined that all would be preserved through the storm and shipwreck, and God predetermined the means would be by listening and obeying Paul's instructions.

2. What is wrong with this popular statement: "If I'm elect then I will be saved no matter what I do?"

This popular statement is wrong and foolish because it denies that God predetermines the end as well as the means, i.e., "Paul links divine predestination (the end) with calling, justification and glorification (means to this end) (Rom. 8:30)" (35). The popular statement above is wrong because it is not a fully Biblical view, since God ordains both the end and the means. In light of Romans 8:30, you cannot say you will be saved (the end) no matter what you do (the means).

3. By what is the plan of God never contradicted?

"The plan of God is never contradicted by the works of God by which the plan is executed" (35). The Godhead is in perfect harmony, therefore, the Godhead's decree (end) and executed plan (means) are in perfect harmony. Their is no contradiction within the Godhead, therefore, there is no contradiction within the Godhead's decrees.

4. Why may we not say that Christ's death was intended for the salvation of all?

Scripture says that not all men will be saved, therefore, Christ's death (the means) cannot be intended for the salvation of all.

WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 3-5. Q & A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

Prior post for III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 1-2.

WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 3-5.

1. Why is the doctrine of predestination so seldom acknowledged even though it is so clearly taught in Scripture?

The doctrine of predestination is so seldom acknowledged because of the perversity of man. Scripture clearly teaches this doctrine, but it is man who refuses to hear God's word by faith (and with humility). "And the chief cause of man's constant misreading of Scripture regarding this matter is his perennial desire to have a better opinion of himself than is warranted" (33).

2. What does sinful man deserve?

Sinful man deserves wrath and damnation.

3. What classic example in Scripture proves this doctrine [doctrine of predestination]?

The classic example is of Jacob and Esau - Romans 9:11-15 "For the children [Rebecca's children] being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth; It was said unto her, The elder shall serve the younger. As it is written, Jacob have I loved, but Esau have I hated. What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God? God forbid. For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion."

4. How much did they have "in common" to begin with? At the "end"?

According to their nature, they being twins, to begin they had everything in common. In the end, however, they were totally different - "Jacob was chosen to eternal life, and Esau was passed by and left to the punishment he deserved" (33).

5. How does this case prove that it was God (alone) who made them differ?

This case proves that it was God alone who made them differ because Romans 9:18 says, "He [God] hath mercy on whom he will, and whom he will he hardeneth."

6. What Scripture asserts that God has "the right" to do this?

God is the Creator, thus, he has a right over his creation, as Romans 9:21 teaches - "Hath not the potter [God] power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?." Commenting on this Williamson says, "God has a right to give damnation to Esau, who deserves damnation, and eternal life to Jacob, who also deserves damnation" (33).

7. What is meant by saying that God's predestination is not "conditional"?

Williamson says, "But what is of cardinal importance is to recognize that God's sovereign determination of the destinies of the souls of men is not conditional. There is no difference between Jacob and Esau for the sake of which God chose the one and rejected the other" (33). God's predestination of man is wholly of grace. God's predestination of man is not conditioned by the works of man.

8. If man could fulfill some condition upon which basis God would then elect him, what teachings of Scripture would be denied?

If man could fulfill some condition upon which basis God would then elect him, it would deny what Scripture teaches in Ephesians 2:8-9 - "For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should boast." - and in Romans 11:6 - "And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work."

9. Why has God chosen the ones he has chosen?

God has chosen the ones he has chosen because of grace, that is, because of pure, unmerited favor. Ephesians 2:5-6 "Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved;) And hath raised us up together, and made us sit together in heavenly places in Christ Jesus." Williamson says, "Scripture informs us that divine election is conditioned upon not something in the creature but rather something in God. It is the good pleasure, the delight of God, which is the basis of Election" (34). See Luke 10:21 - "In that hour Jesus rejoiced in spirit, and said, I thank thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, that thou hast hid these things from the wise and prudent, and hast revealed them unto babes: even so, Father; for so it seemed good in thy sight."

10. Why has God chosen some and passed others by?

Why did God do this? This God has done for his own glory. "God will bring glory to himself, or rather will manifest his glory. He will display the perfection of his holiness by wrath against sin in the destruction of the wicked and he will display the perfection of his mercy and love in saving the elect" (34). If what we stated earlier is true, that "Sinful man deserves wrath and damnation," then it is obvious that both the perfection of God's holy justice and the perfection of God's merciful grace manifest his glory.

WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 1-2. Q & A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Sections 1-3.

WCF. III. Of God's Eternal Decree - 1-2.

1. What distinguishes a "person" from all other beings or things?

A person has a "will" and acts according to purpose, which distinguishes the person from other beings and impersonal things.

2. What kind of "plan" or "purpose" must of necessity belong to an "infinite, eternal, and unchangeable" personal being?

Such a "plan" or "purpose" must necessarily be infinite, eternal, and unchangeable, for it will have the attributes of the person whose "will" is at back the plan. "God is an infinite, eternal, and unchangeable Person. Therefore his plan or purpose must ever have been a part of his infinite, eternal, and unchangeable existence" (30).

3. Cite a Scripture text proving that all existence is controlled by God.

Ephesians 3:11 speaks of God's eternal purpose which He purposed - "According to the eternal purpose which he purposed in Christ Jesus our Lord." And Ephesians 1:11 speaks of God's controlling all things - "In whom also we have obtained an inheritance, being predestinated according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his own will."

4. Cite a Scripture text proving that the most minute details of existence are controlled by God.

Ephesians 1:11 speaks of God's controlling all things ("all" includes even the most minute details) - "In whom also we have obtained an inheritance, being predestinated according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his own will." Also, in Matthew 10:29, Christ says, "Are not two sparrows sold for a farthing? and one of them shall not fall on the ground without your Father."

5. Cite a text proving that seemingly accidental events are controlled by God.

The narrative in 1 Kings 22 records several seemingly accidental events which are controlled by God.

6. Cite a text proving that evil acts are predetermined by God.

In Matthew 18:7 Jesus says, "Woe unto the world because of offences! for it must needs be that offences come; but woe to that man by whom the offence cometh!" God has predetermined/predestined all events, even evil, but these acts are committed because men freely choose to do so.

7, Cite a text proving that evil acts are nevertheless "free."

Acts 2:22-23 teaches that God foreordained that Christ would be delivered for death by the rulers of Israel, but it being done on account of their wicked volition - "Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know: Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain."

8.. Cite a text proving that "good" acts done by regenerate persons are predetermined by God, and yet also "free."

Because "will" flows from nature, the regenerate, who have been given a new nature through regeneration, are capable of freely doing "good" acts, this being taught in Matthew 7:17a - "Even so every good tree bringeth forth good fruit."

9. What do we mean when we say that a man is "free," or acts "freely"?

Man is free if "not forced by any power outside himself to do that which is contrary to 'what he wants to do'" (31).

10. Why are the unregenerate, though free, certain to do only evil?

The unregenerate are free, they have liberty, but they do not have the ability to do good because of their evil nature (due to original sin). They do not have the ability to do good because will flows from nature. As Matthew 7:18 says, "A good tree cannot bring forth evil fruit, neither can a corrupt tree bring forth good fruit."

11. Why are the regenerate, though free, certain to please God?

They are certain to please God because they have a regenerate nature (which is a gift given to them by God), thus, they have a good will "which is in accord with the will of God" (31).

12. Can God foresee (or foreknow) before he predetermines? Vice versa? Why?. 

No and No. God's foreknowledge and predestination are not at odds with one another. As Williamson says, God foreknows things with certainty because God guarantees the certainty. God determines all that exists. This is the case because of the impossibility of the contrary, i.e., if it were not true then God would not be the only self-existent being.

WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - Q & A - Questions 1-3.

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior posts for WCF. II. Questions 1-3. 

     II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - 1-2.
     II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - 3.

WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - 3. Q & A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

Prior post for WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity:

WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - 1-2.

WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - 3.

1. Is the doctrine of the Trinity revealed in the Old Testament? In the New Testament?

Yes. God reveals himself through events recorded in Scripture. The Old Testament recorded events which prepared man for the (redemptive-historical) events by which God clearly revealed himself as triune, while the New Testament records events in light of this revelation. Williamson says, "God revealed himself by supernatural deeds, along with which gradually gave more and more verbal interpretation. Only as God's plan of redemption was fully worked out, was God himself fully made known" (26-27).

2. Is the God revealed in the Old Testament the triune God? How can this be proved?

Yes. The God revealed in the Old Testament is fully God, and, therefore, triune, although this was not fully evident until the latter revelation came (provided by the New Testament). It is called the Old Testament because it is the older (partial) revelation. Neither the Old or the New Testaments alone are God's full revelation, rather, the two together is God's full revelation which reveals by way of redemptive-historical deeds who God is, and His plan of redemption for man, etc. With the revelation provided by the New Testament, it is clear that the triune God is revealed in the Old Testament. For example, in Genesis 1:26 and 11:5, 7 we see God's self-reference to a plurality in the Godhead (fashioning man "in our image" and "Let us go down") . . . Williamson says there is scriptural data (like the tests just mentioned) which are "inexplicable by any other interpretation than by a trinitarian interpretation" (273).

3. Cite an Old Testament text to prove that God is not a single person.

Genesis 1:26. "And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness . . ."

Genesis 32:24-30. "And Jacob was left alone; and there wrestled a man with him . . . . And Jacob called the name of the place Peniel: for I have seen God face to face, and my life is preserved."

Exodus 23:20-25. "Behold, I send an Angel before thee, to keep thee in the way, and to bring thee into the place which I have prepared. Beware of him, and obey his voice, provoke him not; for he will not pardon your transgressions: for my name is in him. But if thou shalt indeed obey his voice, and do all that I speak; then I will be an enemy unto thine enemies, and an adversary unto thine adversaries. For mine Angel shall go before thee, and bring thee in unto the Amorites, and the Hittites, and the Perizzites, and the Canaanites, the Hivites, and the Jebusites: and I will cut them off. Thou shalt not bow down to their gods, nor serve them, nor do after their works: but thou shalt utterly overthrow them, and quite break down their images. And ye shall serve the LORD your God, and he shall bless thy bread, and thy water; and I will take sickness away from the midst of thee"

4. Cite a text which indicates that the Angel of Jehovah is Jehovah (God).

Exodus 23:20, 21 (see above).

5. Cite a prophetic text which will show that God promised to send God incarnate.

The Immanuel ("God with us") promised in Isaiah 7:14 is called "mighty God" in Isaiah 9:6.

6. Why did the apostles accept the "doctrine" of the Trinity?

The accepted the doctrine of the Trinity because each of the Person's of the Godhead had revealed themselves through specific deeds which confirmed they were distinct but together united (one).

7. What two essential elements of the doctrine of the Trinity are taught in the baptismal form of Matthew?

The two elements are: (a) God is one, and (b) God is three. (Three Persons in one being; one being in three Persons.)

WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - 1-2. Q & A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Sections 1-10.

WCF. II. Of God, And of the Holy Trinity - 1-2.

1. Where is the proof to be found of the true God's existence?

Hebrews 11:6 says, "He that cometh to God must believe that he is, and that he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him." Thus, Williamson says, "The doctrine of God begins, therefore, with the assertion that God is. And to the truth of this assertion (as Scripture informs us) everything testifies" (23).

2. What do we mean when we call God a "Spirit"?

God is pure Spirit, meaning he does not have a body like men.

3. Why does Scripture speak of God as having hands, feet, etc.?

In such instances, Scripture is speaking metaphorically and/or (oftentimes) synecdochically.

4. What is meant by the term "incommunicable"?

This term is used to describe the attributes of God that are not and cannot be communicated to man (image bearer of God).

5. What is meant by the term "attributes"?

"Attribute" in reference to the Divine denotes those qualities belonging to God.

6. What are the incommunicable attributes of God?

The incommunicable attributes of God are: eternity, infinity, immutability. God alone has these attributes.

7. What is meant by the term "communicable"?

The term is used to describe the attributes of God that are and can be communicated to man (image bearer of God).

8. What are some communicable attributes of God?

God has qualities that he bestows ("in a measure") upon creatures, i.e., the sevenfold list: being, wisdom, power, holiness, justice, goodness, and truth.

9. Does our knowledge of a particular fact or truth (for example) have the same qualities as does God's knowledge of that fact or truth?

No. God's knowledge of a particular fact or truth is eternal, infinite, and immutable knowledge. That is to say, God's knowledge of a particular fact or truth is Divine knowledge. Our knowledge is not Divine knowledge. We are creatures. Therefore, we have creaturely knowledge. Creaturely knowledge is finite; it does not have the same qualities as does God's knowledge.

10. What does God receive?

God receives nothing because His Divine knowledge is eternal, infinite, and immutable. All that we give to God is merely a re-interpretation (reflection) of his Divine knowledge.

11. What simple truth of the doctrine of God is seldom consistently maintained in the thinking of (even Christian) men?

The simple truth of the doctrine of God that is seldom consistently maintained is that all is derivative of God, meaning, "God is the great original. Everything else is, in one way or another, a mere reflection of him" (25). Everything else is analogically related to the doctrine of the knowledge of God.

WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - Q & A - Questions 1-10.

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts for WCF. I. Questions 1-10.

     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 1.
     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 2-5.
     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 6.
     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 7.
     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 8.
     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 9.
     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 10.

WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 10. Q & A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts:

     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 1.
     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 2-5.
     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 6.
     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 7.
     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 8.
     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 9.

WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 10.

  1. What is the difference between the Roman Catholic and Reformed Churches with regard to the supreme judge in matters of religious controversy?

WCF clearly teaches that Reformed Churches regard the Holy Spirit speaking through Scripture as the "supreme judge" in all matters of religious controversy, e.g., "decrees of councils, opinions of ancient writers, doctrines of men, and private spirits." Roman Catholic churches do not believe this: Roman Catholics believe (a) the Roman Church can "infallibly interpret the infallible Word of God" and (b) the Pope can speak officially regarding doctrinal controversies, i.e., the doctrine of Papal infallibility.

2. Can the Church speak infallibly? If not, then how can it speak with authority or value?

No. Only God speaks infallibly (God is infallible, thus, he can speak infallibly). The Church can speak with authority and value insofar as it declares the Word of God.

3. In the Synod of Jerusalem did Peter act as pope? Who made the decision? Upon what was this decision based?

Peter was not acting as pope at the Synod of Jerusalem. The Church made a decision by appealing to the Old Testament (see verses 14-18).

WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 9. Q & A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts:

     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 1.
     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 2-5.
     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 6.
     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 7.
     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 8.

WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 9.

1. False religions deny that the Bible is God's complete revelation. What other aspect of revelation do they deny?

False religions (and Christian viewpoints that are not fully Biblical) deny the sufficiency-and-perspicuity of Scripture, and they also deny that Scripture interprets itself (since they believe Scripture is deficient, they insist it needs an outside interpreter).

2. In such religions is the Bible important or necessary to the individual believer (according to the view of that religion)?

In such religions the Bible is not necessarily important, since it is not the ultimate standard or authority. The outside interpreter is the authorial matrix; the outside interpreter becomes the standard, thus it becomes necessarily important. (And this is over and against Scripture; it is a myth to insist that Scripture and the outside interpreter, e.g., Tradition, are parallel standards/authorities.

3. Reconcile any apparent conflict between the Reformed insistence that the Bible is self-interpreting and the Reformed teaching that there are to be ministers of the Word ordained with authority to teach the Word in the Churches.

There is no conflict. The Bible is self-interpreting, but the Bible still needs to be studied in depth and taught; there are many hard things in Scripture, but they are understandable. It takes effort and time, it takes exertion and care. Pastor's are ordained to "study" Scripture (see 2 Timothy 2:15), and after studying to preach!

  4. Are all portions of the Scripture equally simple to understand? If not, does this change the fact that they are self-interpreting? Explain.

No. All portions of Scripture are not equally simple to understand. This is why we say Scripture is self-interpretive - "that difficult places are clarified by the parallel passages which speak more clearly" (18), i.e., oftentimes this is referred to as the "analogy of faith" - all of Scripture is united, "the sense of Scripture is one (not many)" (18) - and since all of Scripture is harmonious and without contradiction you are able to clarify difficult passages by the passages that are not difficult.

  5. Why is creedless Christianity a perversion of this doctrine?

Creeds are evidence that the teaching of Scripture is clear and has perspicuity. If you say, "No creed but Christ!" then you are denying the clarity of Scripture.

6. Why do creeds (which are agreeable with Scripture) have authority?

Creeds, while subordinate to Scripture, are both "useful" and "authoritative", but this is only to the "degree that they are 'agreeable to and founded on the Word of God." Because Scripture is self-interpretive we are able to formulate creeds, and "creeds are evidence that the Bible is clear" (19).

WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 8. Q & A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts:

     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 1.
     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 2-5.
     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 6.
     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 7.

WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 8.

1. How many "Bibles" are there (in the ultimate sense)?

In the ultimate sense, there is only one Bible, "given by inspiration of God, to be the rule of faith and life" (WCF. I.2.).

2. Give the correct definition of "the Bible."

It is the original text [the "autographa of the inspired authors" (15)] written by authors under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit.

3. Do we actually possess the original manuscripts upon which the Word of God was originally written?

No. We only have copies (apographa) of the original text. But these copies "actually possess it [the original text] in "authentical" form" (15).

4. What does the Modernist say about the "original, infallible Word of God"?

He says, "What use . . . is an infallible Bible when no one possesses it?" (The Modernist equivocates the original manuscript, which we no longer have, with the original text, which we do have preserved in copies.)

5. Could a copy of the infallible Word of God be as infallible as the Word of which it is a copy? Explain.

Yes. A copy preserves and transmits the truth of the original.

6. Were the early copies perfect?

Some could have been, but they could not all necessarily be perfect because they were copied by uninspired persons. They were copied by hand and men make mistakes.

7. What two chief factors worked to preserve the perfect text even through imperfect copiers?

First, there is a cloud of witnesses (copies). Each copiest made his own mistakes, and the other copies stand as witnesses of both a) the entire text and b) against that copiest's mistakes.

Second, the Greek-speaking Churches that were founded outside of Palestine were familiar with the text and mistakes would have been noticed, this "helped reduce the errors of copiers to an exceedingly small amount" (17).

8. Which of these do you believe most important?

Williamson believes the former is weightier.

9. Why is it no longer necessary that preservation of the true text depend on the Greek-speaking Church?

Because we now have "mechanical means of printing" (17), i.e., printing presses, copy machines, e-publishing, photographs and digital imaging, etc.

10. What is the glorious result of God's singular care and providence so far as Scripture is concerned?

God has by his "care and providence" kept the original text pure through the ages; "We do now actually possess before our very eyes the "authentical" text of the Word of the living God" (17).

WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 7. Q & A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts:

     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 1.
     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 2-5.
     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 6.

WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 7.

1. What does "perspicuity" of Scriptures mean?

Perspicuity is used to describe the clarity of what Scripture teaches: Scripture is easily understood and lucid.

2. What is the Roman Catholic doctrine on this same point?

Roman Catholics do not agree with Protestants on this point. They believe "We can know the true meaning [of Scripture] . . . from the Catholic Church which has been authorized by Jesus Christ to explain His doctrines" (Baltimore Catechism, Q. 1328). Thus, they are saying that Scripture is not lucid, since they insist Scripture needs the interpretive imagination of the Roman Catholic Church.

3. Contrast Roman Catholic and Reformed views of the creed.

For the former, creeds are the lucid interpretations provided by the Church of the unclear Scriptures. For the latter, the "authority of creeds is determined by Scripture, not determinative of Scripture" (13). The Reformed view is that the creeds are always subordinate to Scripture.

4. Does the doctrine of perspicuity of Scripture teach that there is nothing difficult to understand in Scripture? What is the difference between this admission and the Roman Catholic teaching?

No. The doctrine of perspicuity of Scripture does not teach there is nothing difficult to understand in Scripture. There are many profound things taught in Scripture, e.g., Doctrine of Election, Doctrine of Trinity. "It is the glory of God to conceal a matter, but the glory of kings is to search out a matter" (Proverbs 25:2). These profound things are hard to understand because of the nature of their content, but they can be understood.

5. What must the humblest as well as the most learned Christian do to understand the Scriptures? Do you think that those who complain of Scripture being too hard to understand have ever really done this?

All must study the Scriptures in order to understand the Scriptures. This is a diligent work. It is not something that is accomplished with "spasmodic spurts of effort" (13). If you read Scripture diligently and cumulatively, then you cannot say it is too hard to understand.

6. How does Scripture itself indicate that God regards his Word as clear enough for all to understand?

God tells us to search and study and read the Scriptures, and God' s Word is addressed to all men.

2 Timothy 3:15-17 "And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus. All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: that the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works."

Acts 17:11 "These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so."

 John 5:39 "Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me."

 Deuteronomy 6:4-9 "Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God is one Lord: and thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thine heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy might. And these words, which I command thee this day, shall be in thine heart: and thou shalt teach them diligently unto thy children, and shalt talk of them when thou sittest in thine house, and when thou walkest by the way, and when thou liest down, and when thou risest up. And thou shalt bind them for a sign upon thine hand, and they shall be as frontlets between thine eyes. And thou shalt write them upon the posts of thy house, and on thy gates."

7. What would you believe are "the ordinary means" which must be duly used?

Study the Bible in a systematic fashion with aids (pastoral help, the creeds, Bible commentaries, Christian devotional writings, etc.).

 

WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 6. Q & A

Blogging through and answering the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes for personal review and comprehension.

Prior posts:

     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 1.
     I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 2-5.

WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 6.

1. Cite Scripture proof that God's Word is now complete.

     Jesus Christ said he was the "truth" (John 14:6) and the author of Hebrews unwraps the logic of that statement, stating that "God .... at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets" but now he "hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son" who is the "express image of his person." The former was provisional, and the latter final.

2. Cite Scripture proof that God's Word discloses all of his will for man.

     Paul says in Acts 20:27 that he declared "all the counsel of God." In 2 Timothy 3:15-17, Paul argues that Scripture is able to teach, reprove, correct, and train us in righteousness/perfection.

3. Why is guidance given in terms of general principles rather than particular directions? (Two reasons may be given.)

     God's law addresses all things, it is all encompassing, and if guidance is given in terms of general principles instead of particular directions that is actually a possibility (otherwise it would merely be wooden, legalistic, and bulky/verbose). Each of us is personally responsible to "apply these principles to [our] own circumstances" (11) in order to do all to the Glory of God. This involves engaging our thoughts and imaginations. But since the principles apply to specific and personal circumstances, Christian Liberty must be engendered and practiced.

4. How can the Bible suffice for all men in all times an places?

      These all-encompassing principles are universal, applying to all men, everywhere, at all times.

5. In the categories of worship and government give examples of things which are, and things which are not, circumstances of worship and government.

     Regarding worship: the time of day, location (indoors, out doors, in a building owned or rented), the color of the chairs, the paint on the walls, etc. Regarding government: the rules of church order (e.g., Book of Procedures), the specifics of constituting as a local church, etc.

6. Give an example to show that the general principles of the Word of God must control circumstances, and that the circumstances must not control (or be allowed to cause violation of) principles of the Word of God.

     In Exodus 23:4 we read, "If thou meet thine enemy's ox or his ass going astray, thou shalt surely bring it back to him again." A wooden interpretation that would cause violation would be as follows: a man sees his enemy's sheep going astray, but since it isn't the man's ox or ass he doesn't feel compelled to return the animal to his enemy.

The proper view - the principle from this case law is this for a contemporary circumstance: even if someone is your enemy, if you come across their misplaced (gone astray) property, then you have an ethical responsibility to restore the property to them. An example: your neighbor is always agitating you, complaining about your fence, about your lawn, about where and how you place the trash out by the curb on pick-up days, etc. You find his wallet on the sidewalk. You have a moral obligation, on the basis of the principle demonstrated in Exodus 23:4, to return the wallet to your neighbor.

WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 2-5. Q & A

Blogging through the questions from G. I. Williamson's The Westminster Confession of Faith for Study Classes.

Prior post: I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 1.

WCF. I. Of the Holy Scriptures - 2-5.

1. What is the "proof" that the Bible is inspired?

     Evidence both internal and external to God's Word is "proof" that the Bible is inspired. The internal evidence claims it is the Word of God, the New Testament authors believed the Old Testament was inspired, Jesus Christ promised to give his Holy Scripture to his disciples in order to write the New Testament Scriptures (see John 14:26), within the New Testament we see that the different authors treat each others writings as the inspired Word of God, the Bible contains information that could only be revealed (e.g., Creation, the future new heaven and new earth), in addition, the Bible contains many prophesies that were fulfilled. The "external evidence is subordinate, but important" (7): the Church in all ages has acknowledge Scripture as inspired, and the Scriptures have "been preserved as no other writing on earth" (7), indicating God's special care.

2. How does the Bible express the claim that it is inspired?

     The Bible claims to be the word of God. The Bible claims God is its author.

3. Why cannot the authority of the Bible depend on the "testimony" of any man or Church?

     The authority of the Bible cannot depend on the "testimony" of any man or Church because both can and oftentimes err. "Yet it is no small thing that the Church even in its darkest days has acknowledged that the Bible is the Word of God" (7).

4. What is Rome's audacious claim?

     Rome's audacious claim is that the the Bible is the Word of God, but that this certainty depends upon the testimony of the Church. (See the Baltimore Catechism, Q. 1327: "it is only from Tradition (preserved in the Catholic Church) that we can know which of the writings of ancient times are inspired and which are not inspired.")

5. How do Protestants sometimes subordinate the authority of Scripture to men?

     This occurs when Protestants foolishly grant or give credence to the unbeliever's claim that there is nothing within Scripture that warrants them to believe it is the Word of God. That is, when Protestants grant that there is a "neutral" starting point from which to dive into the complex web of data (i.e., archaeological, historical, etc.) and attempt to sift through the facts and arrive at the truth of the matter. This is foolishness because it is idolatrous, it makes the reason of man the measure of all things.

6. Where must the evidence of Scripture's divinity be sought?

      The evidence must be sought in the Divine-Word; the evidence is evident in the intrinsic qualities. The Word of God is there. It is and in it are the evidences of its divinity. "As Prof. John Murray puts it: 'The authority of Scripture is an objective and permanent fact residing in the quality of inspiration'"(8).

7. If the evidence is there, why does not faith always result when men are confronted with that evidence?

     There is no deficiency in the evidence, so the reasons faith does not always result when men are confronted with the evidence is because "not all men have the requisite perceptive faculty" (8). What is the state of the man's heart? If they hate God, if the grace of God is not active in their heart, then their understanding is darkened by bondage to sin. The truth (evidence) is there, but they attempt to hold it down and suppress it (see Romans 1:18).

8. When the Confession speaks of the Holy Spirit "bearing witness," does it mean that the new truth conveyed to the mind?

     No. The Holy Spirit is not conveying new truth to the mind of man. The Holy Spirit "bearing witness" does so "by and with the word in our hearts." There is both the objective witness of Scripture and the internal testimony of the Holy Spirit, and man through the internal work of the Holy Spirit responds appropriately to the truth that is the objective witness of Scripture. The truth in the Bible is the truth conveyed to the mind of believers through the work of the Holy Spirit. "God's whole truth to man is contained in Scripture" (8). The Word of God is inherently perfect, therefore, the Holy Spirit does not convey new truth to the mind of man.